However, it's important to note that:
* Royalties as we know them today didn't exist in Shakespeare's time. He was paid a lump sum for the initial writing of his plays, and then received further payments based on how many performances took place.
* There's evidence of other writers receiving payments tied to performance before Shakespeare. For example, records exist of playwrights in Elizabethan England receiving "benefit nights" where they profited from the proceeds of a particular performance.
Therefore, while Shakespeare is a significant example, it's inaccurate to claim he was the absolute first writer to receive royalties in a formal sense. The concept of royalties evolved over time, and Shakespeare's system was a precursor to the modern system we see today.